Rishabh Pant continues to make headlines for his performance on the field and his IPL future. Pant lit up the M.A. Chidambaram Stadium in Chennai with a stunning century in the ongoing Test match against Bangladesh today.
Following that, a Cricbuzz report confirmed that he is set to be retained as Delhi Capitals' top pick for the upcoming IPL season. Pant's return to form was on full display as he smashed 109 runs off 128 balls, propelling India to a commanding position in the Test match.

This was Pant's first century since returning from a long injury layoff, following his December 2022 accident. His aggressive innings not only helped India extend their lead but also solidified his status as one of India's most valuable players.
The news of Pant's retention comes after weeks of speculation regarding his future with Delhi Capitals. Rumors of a rift between Pant and the management over his retention fee had cast doubt on his continuity with the franchise.
However, reportedly, sources within the Delhi Capitals ownership group have confirmed that Pant will be the team's primary retention choice. His current IPL salary of INR 16 crore is expected to increase, depending on the BCCI's retention rules and the franchise's player purse.
Pant, who captained Delhi in 2024 after missing the 2023 season due to injury, has been a crucial figure for the franchise. In the 2024 IPL, he amassed 446 runs in 13 matches with an impressive strike rate of 155. As Delhi's all-time leading run-scorer with 3,284 runs, Pant's value to the team remains unquestionable.
Alongside Pant, Delhi Capitals are also likely to retain key players such as Axar Patel and Kuldeep Yadav, pending BCCI guidelines. With the announcement of retention rules delayed, Delhi Capitals have reportedly finalized these decisions after a meeting between Pant and co-owner Parth Jindal.